OK. I restate it
Wrayun! Let me ask you a simple question.
"When Bengalis with 56% majority (Punjabis being 24%) were subservient to Punjab then what was so special about pashtuns not to be subservient?
What drastic change could you cite after the division of Pakistan in 1971 which empowered pashtun to the status of equality as per your claim?"
Wrayun! Let me ask you a simple question.
"When Bengalis with 56% majority (Punjabis being 24%) were subservient to Punjab then what was so special about pashtuns not to be subservient?
What drastic change could you cite after the division of Pakistan in 1971 which empowered pashtun to the status of equality as per your claim?"

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