Again, another question that should not be asked for sake of being politically correct. This question is only in reference to non-Pashtuns.
I notice that most American-Pakistani (Pakistanis and Indians grouped as one) men have married fair skinned women (a few have married European Americans straight up- non have married an African). There is no way that other people do not notice this.
Now I understand that an individual may have a certain preference, but when it is a pattern across a whole group- then what is the explanation.
Am I right to conclude that this is due to an inferiority complex?
I notice that most American-Pakistani (Pakistanis and Indians grouped as one) men have married fair skinned women (a few have married European Americans straight up- non have married an African). There is no way that other people do not notice this.
Now I understand that an individual may have a certain preference, but when it is a pattern across a whole group- then what is the explanation.
Am I right to conclude that this is due to an inferiority complex?

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