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The Absence of Rule of Law in Afghanistan & Pakistan

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  • #31
    Originally posted by Sangar View Post
    What do you think is the reason why there is absence of rule of law in Afghanistan and Pakistan?
    Here's my question: Why is it that historical evidence points to the fact that white people, primarily Anglo-Saxon and Nordic people (the Germanic stock), have always had the tendency to stick together, adhere to laws and move forward as a society? You won't find backward or poor people of that stock in any part of the world that they've colonized (North America, Western Europe, Australia, South Africa, Greenland) and they don't need aid or support from anyone. These people are the descendants of a handful of tribes and they've been dominating the world for centuries.

    Similarly, far Eastern people have always shown conformity and are again, a progressive law-abiding people.

    Indian and African people have never been anything close in comparison. They've always been very, very poor to begin with and they've always been conquered either by foreigners or by the elites from within their societies. They have never been societies that are built upon the greatness of the common folk. Native Sub-Saharan Africans have never even had a civilization of their own.

    The Arabs had a couple hundred of years of power and then they turned into goats and camels again, a state from which they're yet to return.

    I don't know, it's just an observation. Our races don't get along well in groups - we can't get things done until a king or a ruler comes at us with an iron fist and a leather belt and makes us do something. In comparison, Europeans have a tendency to work together in parliaments and societies without the fear of physical punishment.
    "If a nation expects to be ignorant and free, in a state of civilization, it expects what never was and never will be".

    "Knowledge will forever govern ignorance; and a people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with the power which knowledge gives".

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    • #32
      ^ Where do the Persians fit in, and the Turks for that matter, because whilst neither societies are perfect - they've taken Islam and their ancient histories, combined the two and established a comfortable medium AND are in a position to export their cultural and ideological influence (albeit not as great as they once were able to). In general the Turks and Persians can resist linguistic colonisation, whilst being able to absorb new technologies and create an appropriate Persian or Turkish lexis around it.

      Arabic on the otherhand, even when spoken and used by Arabs is generally seen to be vulnerable to French, English etc. and the Arab lands are more susceptible to interference by white-Europeans and Americans, because they allow it.

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