Originally posted by ScimitarXEdge
View Post
That is an unfair statement. Just because two ideas or parts of history came from a common origin (Europe) does not imply that both are inter-related. Where is the historical proof for this? Which one influences the other more (if they can)? For the good portion of the past 400-500 years have been influenced by Europe or people of European descent...should they all be related to imperialism by default?

Comment